Download Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials.lead2pass.1z0-974.2019-09-01.1e.54q.vcex

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Exam Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials
Number 1z0-974
File Name Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials.lead2pass.1z0-974.2019-09-01.1e.54q.vcex
Size 514 Kb
Posted September 01, 2019
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Demo Questions

Question 1
Which two are intended uses for the Standalone Selling Price Report Dashboard?

  • A: Review performance obligations by effective period.
  • B: Diagnose revenue price profile.
  • C: Drill down to data used to derive standalone selling prices.
  • D: Monitor transaction price calculation and allocation.
  • E: Analyze standalone selling prices for one or multiple effective periods.



Question 2
How many tabs does the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template have?

  • A: four tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES, and VRM_PERF_OBLIG tables respectively
  • B: three tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES tables respectively
  • C: two tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES tables respectively
  • D: one tab that stores data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS table



Question 3
Which, when transferred to a customer, allows you to recognize revenue?

  • A: a shipment
  • B: a performance obligation
  • C: an invoice
  • D: a promise detail



Question 4
Given:

  
 
Which two are incorrect statements about the Oracle Fusion Receivables Transaction Sources section in the Manage Revenue Management System Options page?

  • A: Revenue Management can only integrate to Fusion Receivables.
  • B: You can add up to 5 Transaction Sources as part of your integration with Fusion Receivables.
  • C: You can choose which Transaction Sources in Fusion Receivables integrate to Revenue Management.
  • D: You can define date filters in order to consider only relevant data needed to comply with the new revenue recognition standards.



Question 5
What is a contract modification?

  • A: a change to the contract caused by negotiation with the customer
  • B: a revision or correction to the estimate of variable consideration made at inception
  • C: a change (modification) to the contract data
  • D: an increase or decrease in expected collectability



Question 6
Which three attributes are helpful in defining a Contract Identification Rule?

  • A: Product Description
  • B: Quote Number
  • C: Delivery Address
  • D: Bill to Customer
  • E: Ledger
  • F: Business Unit



Question 7
Which is NOT a required piece of information when importing contract header information from a source file?

  • A: Date of Source Document
  • B: Source Document Type code
  • C: Record Type
  • D: Source System
  • E: Currency code of source document
  • F: Source Document Unique Identifier Number 1



Question 8
Why are Source Document Type Codes required when defining Source Document Types?

  • A: Because they are Revenue Management Descriptive Flexfields.
  • B: Because they are needed for integration with Product Management.
  • C: Because they are needed for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS table to populate extensible attributes.
  • D: Because they provide uniqueness to the Source Document Types.



Question 9
Which is a term under ASC 606 or IFRS 15?

  • A: transaction price
  • B: promise detail
  • C: initial performance event
  • D: requires complete



Question 10
Which setup component is NOT connected to a Revenue Price Profile?

  • A: Contract Identification Rules
  • B: Items
  • C: Source Document Types
  • D: Pricing Dimension Segments









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