Download Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control.CRISC.Train4Sure.2018-12-22.242q.vcex

Vendor: ISACA
Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Date: Dec 22, 2018
File Size: 396 KB

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Demo Questions

Question 1
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won't affect your project much if they happen. 
What should you do with these identified risk events?
  1. These risks can be dismissed.
  2. These risks can be accepted.
  3. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
  4. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Low-impact, low-probability risks can be added to the low priority risk watch list. Incorrect Answers:A: These risks are not dismissed; they are still documented on the low priority risk watch list.B: While these risks may be accepted, they should be documented on the low priority risk watch list. This list will be periodically reviewed and the status of the risks may change. D: Not every risk demands a risk response, so this choice is incorrect.
Low-impact, low-probability risks can be added to the low priority risk watch list. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: These risks are not dismissed; they are still documented on the low priority risk watch list.
B: While these risks may be accepted, they should be documented on the low priority risk watch list. This list will be periodically reviewed and the status of the risks may change. 
D: Not every risk demands a risk response, so this choice is incorrect.
Question 2
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have introduced an intrusion detection system for the control. You have identified a warning of violation of 
security policies of your enterprise. What type of control is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?  
  1. Detective
  2. Corrective 
  3. Preventative
  4. Recovery
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies. As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control. Incorrect Answers:B: These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. As IDS only detects but not reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control. C: As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control.D: These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies. 
As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control. 
Incorrect Answers:
B: These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. As IDS only detects but not reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control. 
C: As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control.
D: These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.
Question 3
What are the functions of audit and accountability control?  
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)
  1. Provides details on how to protect the audit logs
  2. Implement effective access control
  3. Implement an effective audit program
  4. Provides details on how to determine what to audit
Correct answer: ACD
Explanation:
Audit and accountability family of controls helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation. Incorrect Answers:B: Access Control is the family of controls that helps an organization implement effective access control. They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties. Audit and accountability family of controls do not help in implementing effective access control.
Audit and accountability family of controls helps an organization implement an effective audit program. It provides details on how to determine what to audit. It provides details on how to protect the audit logs. It also includes information on using audit logs for non-repudiation. 
Incorrect Answers:
B: Access Control is the family of controls that helps an organization implement effective access control. They ensure that users have the rights and permissions they need to perform their jobs, and no more. It includes principles such as least privilege and separation of duties. 
Audit and accountability family of controls do not help in implementing effective access control.
Question 4
Which among the following acts as a trigger for risk response process?
  1. Risk level increases above risk appetite
  2. Risk level increase above risk tolerance
  3. Risk level equates risk appetite
  4. Risk level equates the risk tolerance
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise's risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives. Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards. Incorrect Answers:A, C: Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept inpursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account:The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc. The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment. D: Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise's risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective 
is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives. 
Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any 
exceptions to such standards. 
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in
pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the 
following two major factors should be taken into account:
  • The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc. 
  • The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment. 
D: Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.
Question 5
What is the value of exposure factor if the asset is lost completely?
  1. 1
  2. Infinity
  3. 10
  4. 0
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Exposure Factor represents the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. For example, if the Asset Value is reduced to two third, the exposure factor value is 0.66. Therefore, when the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. Incorrect Answers:B, C, D: These are not the values of exposure factor for zero assets.
Exposure Factor represents the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. For example, if the Asset Value is reduced to two third, the exposure factor value is 0.66. 
Therefore, when the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. 
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not the values of exposure factor for zero assets.
Question 6
Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit. If your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response?
  1. Enhancing
  2. Positive
  3. Opportunistic
  4. Exploiting
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
This is an example of exploiting a positive risk - a by-product of a project is an excellent example of exploiting a risk. Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response. Incorrect Answers:A: Enhancing is a positive risk response that describes actions taken to increase the odds of a risk event to happen.B: This is an example of a positive risk, but positive is not a risk response.C: Opportunistic is not a valid risk response.
This is an example of exploiting a positive risk - a by-product of a project is an excellent example of exploiting a risk. Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: Enhancing is a positive risk response that describes actions taken to increase the odds of a risk event to happen.
B: This is an example of a positive risk, but positive is not a risk response.
C: Opportunistic is not a valid risk response.
Question 7
Which of the following is true for Single loss expectancy (SLE), Annual rate of occurrence (ARO), and Annual loss expectancy (ALE)?
  1. ALE= ARO/SLE
  2. ARO= SLE/ALE
  3. ARO= ALE*SLE
  4. ALE= ARO*SLE
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. The results can help in identifying the priority of risks. These results are also used to determine the effectiveness of controls. Some of the terms associated with quantitative risk assessments are:Single loss expectancy (SLE)-It refers to the total loss expected from a single incident. This incident can occur when vulnerability is being exploited by threat. The loss is expressed as a dollar value such as $1,000. It includes the value of data, software, and hardware. SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor Annual rate of occurrence (ARO)-It refers to the number of times expected for an incident to occur in a year. If an incident occurred twice a month in the past year, the ARO is 24. Assuming nothing changes, it is likely that it will occur 24 times next year. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)-It is the expected loss for a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying SLE with ARO. Because SLE is a given in a dollar value, ALE is also given in a dollar value. For example, if the SLE is $1,000 and the ARO is 24, the ALE is $24,000. ALE = SLE * ARO Safeguard value-This is the cost of a control. Controls are used to mitigate risk. For example, antivirus software of an average cost of $50 for each computer. If there are 50 computers, the safeguard value is $2,500. A, B, C: These are wrong formulas and are not used in quantitative risk assessment.
A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. 
The results can help in identifying the priority of risks. These results are also used to determine the effectiveness of controls. Some of the terms associated with 
quantitative risk assessments are:
  • Single loss expectancy (SLE)-It refers to the total loss expected from a single incident. This incident can occur when vulnerability is being exploited by threat. 
    The loss is expressed as a dollar value such as $1,000. It includes the value of data, software, and hardware. SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor 
  • Annual rate of occurrence (ARO)-It refers to the number of times expected for an incident to occur in a year. If an incident occurred twice a month in the past 
    year, the ARO is 24. Assuming nothing changes, it is likely that it will occur 24 times next year. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)-It is the expected loss for a year. 
    ALE is calculated by multiplying SLE with ARO. Because SLE is a given in a dollar value, ALE is also given in a dollar value. For example, if the SLE is $1,000 
    and the ARO is 24, the ALE is $24,000. 
  • ALE = SLE * ARO Safeguard value-This is the cost of a control. Controls are used to mitigate risk. For example, antivirus software of an average cost of $50 for 
    each computer. If there are 50 computers, the safeguard value is $2,500. A, B, C: These are wrong formulas and are not used in quantitative risk assessment.
Question 8
Which of the following statements are true for enterprise's risk management capability maturity level 3?  
  1. Workflow tools are used to accelerate risk issues and track decisions
  2. The business knows how IT fits in the enterprise risk universe and the risk portfolio view
  3. The enterprise formally requires continuous improvement of risk management skills, based on clearly defined personal and enterprise goals
  4. Risk management is viewed as a business issue, and both the drawbacks and benefits of risk are recognized
Correct answer: ABD
Explanation:
An enterprise's risk management capability maturity level is 3 when:Risk management is viewed as a business issue, and both the drawbacks and benefits of risk are recognized. There is a selected leader for risk management, engaged with the enterprise risk committee, across the enterprise. The business knows how IT fits in the enterprise risk universe and the risk portfolio view. Local tolerances drive the enterprise risk tolerance. Risk management activities are being aligned across the enterprise. Formal risk categories are identified and described in clear terms. Situations and scenarios are included in risk awareness training beyond specific policy and structures and promote a common language for communicating risk. Defined requirements exist for a centralized inventory of risk issues. Workflow tools are used to accelerate risk issues and track decisions. Incorrect Answers:C: Enterprise having risk management capability maturity level 5 requires continuous improvement of risk management skills, based on clearly defined personaland enterprise goals.
An enterprise's risk management capability maturity level is 3 when:
  • Risk management is viewed as a business issue, and both the drawbacks and benefits of risk are recognized. 
  • There is a selected leader for risk management, engaged with the enterprise risk committee, across the enterprise. 
  • The business knows how IT fits in the enterprise risk universe and the risk portfolio view. 
  • Local tolerances drive the enterprise risk tolerance. 
  • Risk management activities are being aligned across the enterprise. 
  • Formal risk categories are identified and described in clear terms. 
  • Situations and scenarios are included in risk awareness training beyond specific policy and structures and promote a common language for communicating risk. 
  • Defined requirements exist for a centralized inventory of risk issues. 
  • Workflow tools are used to accelerate risk issues and track decisions. 
Incorrect Answers:
C: Enterprise having risk management capability maturity level 5 requires continuous improvement of risk management skills, based on clearly defined personal
and enterprise goals.
Question 9
Which of the following role carriers is accounted for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions?
  1. Business management
  2. Business process owner
  3. Chief information officer (CIO)
  4. Chief risk officer (CRO)
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Business management is the business individuals with roles relating to managing a program. They are typically accountable for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions. Other than this, they are also responsible for managing risks, react to events, etc. Incorrect Answers:B: Business process owner is an individual responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance. He/she is responsible for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them. C: CIO is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy; aligning IT and business strategies; and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services and information and the deployment of associated human resources. CIO has some responsibility analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them. D: CRO is the individual who oversees all aspects of risk management across the enterprise. He/she is responsible for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them.
Business management is the business individuals with roles relating to managing a program. They are typically accountable for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions. Other than this, they are also responsible for managing risks, react to events, etc. 
Incorrect Answers:
B: Business process owner is an individual responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance. He/she is responsible for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them. 
C: CIO is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy; aligning IT and business strategies; and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services and information and the deployment of associated human resources. CIO has some responsibility analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them. 
D: CRO is the individual who oversees all aspects of risk management across the enterprise. He/she is responsible for analyzing risks, maintaining risk profile, and risk-aware decisions but is not accounted for them.
Question 10
You are using Information system. You have chosen a poor password and also sometimes transmits data over unprotected communication lines. 
What is this poor quality of password and unsafe transmission refers to?
  1. Probabilities
  2. Threats
  3. Vulnerabilities
  4. Impacts
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Vulnerabilities represent characteristics of information resources that may be exploited by a threat. The given scenario describes such a situation, hence it is a vulnerability. Incorrect Answers:A: Probabilities represent the likelihood of the occurrence of a threat, and this scenario does not describe a probability.B: Threats are circumstances or events with the potential to cause harm to information resources. This scenario does not describe a threat.D: Impacts represent the outcome or result of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. The stem does not describe an impact.
Vulnerabilities represent characteristics of information resources that may be exploited by a threat. The given scenario describes such a situation, hence it is a vulnerability. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: Probabilities represent the likelihood of the occurrence of a threat, and this scenario does not describe a probability.
B: Threats are circumstances or events with the potential to cause harm to information resources. This scenario does not describe a threat.
D: Impacts represent the outcome or result of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. The stem does not describe an impact.
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