Download Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control.CRISC.Pass4Sure.2020-02-13.350q.vcex

Vendor: ISACA
Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Date: Feb 13, 2020
File Size: 456 KB
Downloads: 1

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Question 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?
  1. In order to avoid risk
  2. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
  3. Risk reports need to be timely
  4. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to effectively capture these changes. The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are constantly changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can capture the changes in threat and vulnerability. Incorrect Answers:A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI reporting, but is not the reason for maintenance of KRIs.B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect to their sensitivity, the most important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to effectively capture the changes in threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that because of change of threat and vulnerability overtime.C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for KRI maintenance.
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to effectively capture these changes. 
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are constantly changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can capture the changes in threat and vulnerability. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI reporting, but is not the reason for maintenance of KRIs.
B: While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect to their sensitivity, the most important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to effectively capture the changes in threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that because of change of threat and vulnerability overtime.
C: Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for KRI maintenance.
Question 2
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?
  1. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
  2. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
  3. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
  4. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response. Incorrect Answers:A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk events, and not in positive risk events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. But as this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response. 
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk events, and not in positive risk events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. But as this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
Question 3
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?
  1. 120
  2. 100
  3. 15
  4. 30
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:Identify potential failure effects Identify potential causes Establish links between each identified potential cause Identify potential failure modes Assess severity, occurrence and detection Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these assessments. Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection.    RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection Hence,    RPN = 4 * 5 * 6             = 120 Incorrect Answers:B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and detection.
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
  • Identify potential failure effects 
  • Identify potential causes 
  • Establish links between each identified potential cause 
  • Identify potential failure modes 
  • Assess severity, occurrence and detection 
  • Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these assessments. 
  • Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection. 
   RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection 
Hence, 
   RPN = 4 * 5 * 6 
            = 120 
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence, and detection.
Question 4
Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise? 
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
  1. Business leaders
  2. Senior management
  3. Human resource
  4. Chief financial officer
Correct answer: AB
Explanation:
An enterprise may have hundreds of risk indicators such as logs, alarms and reports. The CRISC will usually need to work with senior management and business leaders to determine which risk indicators will be monitored on a regular basis and be recognized as KRIs. Incorrect Answers:C, D: Chief financial officer and human resource only overview common risk view, but are not involved in risk based decisions.
An enterprise may have hundreds of risk indicators such as logs, alarms and reports. The CRISC will usually need to work with senior management and business leaders to determine which risk indicators will be monitored on a regular basis and be recognized as KRIs. 
Incorrect Answers:
C, D: Chief financial officer and human resource only overview common risk view, but are not involved in risk based decisions.
Question 5
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? 
"It is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions."
  1. Risk governance
  2. Risk identification
  3. Risk response planning
  4. Risk communication
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions. Risk communication is mostly concerned with the nature of risk or expressing concerns, views, or reactions to risk managers or institutional bodies for risk management. The key plan to consider and communicate risk is to categorize and impose priorities, and acquire suitable measures to reduce risks. It is important throughout any crisis to put across multifaceted information in a simple and clear manner. Risk communication helps in switching or allocating the information concerning risk among the decision-maker and the stakeholders. Risk communication can be explained more clearly with the help of the following definitions:It defines the issue of what a group does, not just what it says. It must take into account the valuable element in user's perceptions of risk. It will be more valuable if it is thought of as conversation, not instruction. Risk communication is a fundamental and continuing element of the risk analysis exercise, and the involvement of the stakeholder group is from the beginning. It makes the stakeholders conscious of the process at each phase of the risk assessment. It helps to guarantee that the restrictions, outcomes, consequence, logic, and risk assessment are undoubtedly understood by all the stakeholders. Incorrect Answers:C: A risk response ensures that the residual risk is within the limits of the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. Risk response is process of selecting the correct, prioritized response to risk, based on the level of risk, the enterprise's risk tolerance and the cost and benefit of the particular risk response option.Risk response ensures that management is providing accurate reports on:The level of risk faced by the enterprise The incidents' type that have occurred Any alteration in the enterprise's risk profile based on changes in the risk environment
Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions. Risk communication is mostly concerned with the nature of risk or expressing concerns, views, or reactions to risk managers or institutional bodies for risk management. The key plan to consider and communicate risk is to categorize and impose priorities, and acquire suitable measures to reduce risks. It is important throughout any crisis to put across multifaceted information in a simple and clear manner. 
Risk communication helps in switching or allocating the information concerning risk among the decision-maker and the stakeholders. Risk communication can be explained more clearly with the help of the following definitions:
  • It defines the issue of what a group does, not just what it says. 
  • It must take into account the valuable element in user's perceptions of risk. 
  • It will be more valuable if it is thought of as conversation, not instruction. 
Risk communication is a fundamental and continuing element of the risk analysis exercise, and the involvement of the stakeholder group is from the beginning. It makes the stakeholders conscious of the process at each phase of the risk assessment. It helps to guarantee that the restrictions, outcomes, consequence, logic, and risk assessment are undoubtedly understood by all the stakeholders. 
Incorrect Answers:
C: A risk response ensures that the residual risk is within the limits of the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. Risk response is process of selecting the correct, prioritized response to risk, based on the level of risk, the enterprise's risk tolerance and the cost and benefit of the particular risk response option.
Risk response ensures that management is providing accurate reports on:
  • The level of risk faced by the enterprise 
  • The incidents' type that have occurred 
  • Any alteration in the enterprise's risk profile based on changes in the risk environment
Question 6
You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?
  1. Risk Register
  2. Risk Management Plan
  3. Risk Breakdown Structure
  4. Risk Categories
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
The primary outputs from Identify Risks are the initial entries into the risk register. The risk register ultimately contains the outcomes of other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. Incorrect Answers:B, C, D: All these are outputs from the "Plan Risk Management" process, which happens prior to the starting of risk identification.
The primary outputs from Identify Risks are the initial entries into the risk register. The risk register ultimately contains the outcomes of other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. 
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: All these are outputs from the "Plan Risk Management" process, which happens prior to the starting of risk identification.
Question 7
Which of the following components of risk scenarios has the potential to generate internal or external threat on an enterprise?
  1. Timing dimension
  2. Events
  3. Assets
  4. Actors
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Components of risk scenario that are needed for its analysis are:Actor: Actors are those components of risk scenario that has the potential to generate the threat that can be internal or external, human or non-human. Internal actors are within the enterprise like staff, contractors, etc. On the other hand, external actors include outsiders, competitors, regulators and the market.Threat type: Threat type defines the nature of threat, that is, whether the threat is malicious, accidental, natural or intentional. Event: Event is an essential part of a scenario; a scenario always has to contain an event. Event describes the happenings like whether it is a disclosure of confidential information, or interruption of a system or project, or modification, theft, destruction, etc.Asset: Assets are the economic resources owned by business or company. Anything tangible or intangible that one possesses, usually considered as applicable to the payment of one's debts, is considered an asset. An asset can also be defined as a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Tangible asset: Tangible are those asset that has physical attributes and can be detected with the senses, e.g., people, infrastructure, and finances. Intangible asset: Intangible are those assets that has no physical attributes and cannot be detected with the senses, e.g., information, reputation and customer trust.Timing dimension: The timing dimension is the application of the scenario to detect time to respond to or recover from an event. It identifies if the event occurs at a critical moment and its duration. It also specifies the time lag between the event and the consequence, that is, if there an immediate consequence (e.g., network failure, immediate downtime) or a delayed consequence (e.g., wrong IT architecture with accumulated high costs over a long period of time).
Components of risk scenario that are needed for its analysis are:
  • Actor: Actors are those components of risk scenario that has the potential to generate the threat that can be internal or external, human or non-human. Internal actors are within the enterprise like staff, contractors, etc. On the other hand, external actors include outsiders, competitors, regulators and the market.
  • Threat type: Threat type defines the nature of threat, that is, whether the threat is malicious, accidental, natural or intentional. 
  • Event: Event is an essential part of a scenario; a scenario always has to contain an event. Event describes the happenings like whether it is a disclosure of confidential information, or interruption of a system or project, or modification, theft, destruction, etc.
  • Asset: Assets are the economic resources owned by business or company. Anything tangible or intangible that one possesses, usually considered as applicable to the payment of one's debts, is considered an asset. An asset can also be defined as a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Tangible asset: Tangible are those asset that has physical attributes and can be detected with the senses, e.g., people, infrastructure, and finances. Intangible asset: Intangible are those assets that has no physical attributes and cannot be detected with the senses, e.g., information, reputation and customer trust.
  • Timing dimension: The timing dimension is the application of the scenario to detect time to respond to or recover from an event. It identifies if the event occurs at a critical moment and its duration. It also specifies the time lag between the event and the consequence, that is, if there an immediate consequence (e.g., network failure, immediate downtime) or a delayed consequence (e.g., wrong IT architecture with accumulated high costs over a long period of time).
Question 8
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have planned the risk response process and now you are about to implement various controls. What you should do before relying on any of the controls?
  1. Review performance data
  2. Discover risk exposure
  3. Conduct pilot testing
  4. Articulate risk
Correct answer: AC
Explanation:
Pilot testing and reviewing of performance data to verify operation against design are done before relying on control. Incorrect Answers:B: Discovering risk exposure helps in identifying the severity of risk, but it does not play any role in specifying the reliability of control.D: Articulating risk is the first phase in the risk response process to ensure that information on the true state of exposures and opportunities are made available in a timely manner and to the right people for appropriate response. But it does not play any role in identifying whether any specific control is reliable or not.
Pilot testing and reviewing of performance data to verify operation against design are done before relying on control. 
Incorrect Answers:
B: Discovering risk exposure helps in identifying the severity of risk, but it does not play any role in specifying the reliability of control.
D: Articulating risk is the first phase in the risk response process to ensure that information on the true state of exposures and opportunities are made available in a timely manner and to the right people for appropriate response. But it does not play any role in identifying whether any specific control is reliable or not.
Question 9
Which of the following is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of unwanted occurrences in a system?
  1. Sensitivity analysis
  2. Scenario analysis
  3. Fault tree analysis
  4. Cause and effect analysis
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Fault tree analysis (FIA) is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of possible occurrences in a system, which can result in an undesirable outcome. It combines hardware failures and human failures. Incorrect Answers:A: Sensitivity analysis is the quantitative risk analysis technique that:Assist in determination of risk factors that have the most potential impact Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values B: This analysis provides ability to see a range of values across several scenarios to identify risk in specific situation. It provides ability to identify those inputs which will provide the greatest level of uncertainty.D: Cause-and-effect analysis involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exploring the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. These tools also help in identifying potential risk.
Fault tree analysis (FIA) is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of possible occurrences in a system, which can result in an undesirable outcome. It combines hardware failures and human failures. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: Sensitivity analysis is the quantitative risk analysis technique that:
Assist in determination of risk factors that have the most potential impact Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values 
B: This analysis provides ability to see a range of values across several scenarios to identify risk in specific situation. It provides ability to identify those inputs which will provide the greatest level of uncertainty.
D: Cause-and-effect analysis involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exploring the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. These tools also help in identifying potential risk.
Question 10
What is the PRIMARY need for effectively assessing controls?
  1. Control's alignment with operating environment
  2. Control's design effectiveness
  3. Control's objective achievement
  4. Control's operating effectiveness
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Controls can be effectively assessed only by determining how accurately the control objective is achieved within the environment in which they are operating. No conclusion can be reached as to the strength of the control until the control has been adequately tested. Incorrect Answers:A: Alignment of control with the operating environment is essential but after the control's accuracy in achieving objective. In other words, achieving objective is the top most priority in assessing controls.B: Control's design effectiveness is also considered but is latter considered after achieving objectives.D: Control's operating effectiveness is considered but after its accuracy in objective achievement.
Controls can be effectively assessed only by determining how accurately the control objective is achieved within the environment in which they are operating. No conclusion can be reached as to the strength of the control until the control has been adequately tested. 
Incorrect Answers:
A: Alignment of control with the operating environment is essential but after the control's accuracy in achieving objective. In other words, achieving objective is the top most priority in assessing controls.
B: Control's design effectiveness is also considered but is latter considered after achieving objectives.
D: Control's operating effectiveness is considered but after its accuracy in objective achievement.
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