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Exam Certified HIPAA Professional
Number HIO-201
File Name HIPAA.test4prep.HIO-201.2018-06-30.1e.95q.vcex
Size 73 Kb
Posted June 30, 2018
Downloaded 2

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Demo Questions

Question 1
The National Provider File (NPF) includes information such as:

  • A: Effective date
  • B: CPT-4
  • C: CDT
  • D: ICD-9-CM
  • E: Enrollment date

Question 2
This transaction type is a “response” transaction that may include information such as accepted/rejected claim, approved claim(s) pre-payment, or approved claim(s) post-payment:

  • A: 270.
  • B: 820.
  • C: 837.
  • D: 277.
  • E: 278.

Question 3
The code set that must be used to describe or identify outpatient physician services and procedures is:

  • A: lCD-SCM, Volumes 1 and 2
  • B: CPT-4
  • C: CDT
  • D: lCD-SCM, Volume 3
  • E: NDC

Question 4
The Security Incident Procedures standard requires just one implementation specification. That implementation specification is:

  • A: Termination Procedures
  • B: Automatic Logoff
  • C: Emergency Access Procedure
  • D: Contingency Operations
  • E: Response and Reporting

Question 5
A hospital is preparing a file of treatment information for the state of California. 
This file is to be sent to external medical researchers. The hospital has removed SSN, name, phone and other information that specifically identifies an individual. However, there may still be data in the file that potentially could identify the individual. Can the hospital claim ‘safe harbor” and release the file to the researchers?

  • A: Yes the hospital’s actions satisfy the “safe harbor” method of de-identification.
  • B: No - a person with appropriate knowledge and experience must determine that the information that remains can identify an individual.
  • C: No - authorization to release the information is still required by HIPAA.
  • D: No - to satisfy “safe harbor the hospital must also have no knowledge of a way to use the remaining data to identify an individual.
  • E: Yes - medical researchers are covered entities and “research” is considered a part of “treatment” by HIPAA.

Question 6
Which of the following is NOT a HIPAA national health care identifier?

  • A: National Provider Identifier (NPI)
  • B: Social Security Number (SSN)
  • C: National Health Plan Identifier (PlanID)
  • D: National Employer Identifier for Health Care (EIN)
  • E: National Health Identifier for Individuals (NI-UI)

Question 7
Select the correct statement regarding code sets and identifiers.

  • A: A covered entity must use the applicable code set that is valid at the time the transaction is initiated.
  • B: April 14, 2003 is the compliance date for implementation of the National Provider Identifier.
  • C: CMS is responsible for updating the CPT-4 code sets.
  • D: An organization that assigns NPIs is referred to as National Provider for Identifiers.
  • E: HHS assigns the Employer Identification Number (EIN), which has been selected as the National Provider Identifier for Health Care.

Question 8
This security standard requires that the covered entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data:

  • A: Security incident Procedures
  • B: Integrity
  • C: Person or Entity Authentication
  • D: Assigned Security Responsibility
  • E: Business Associate Contracts and other Arrangements

Question 9
Select the FALSE statement regarding code sets and identifiers.

  • A: The CPT-4 code set is maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA).
  • B: A covered entity must use the applicable medical code set that is valid at the time the health care is delivered.
  • C: The National Provider Identifier (NPI) will be assigned by the National Provider System (NPS).
  • D: The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services is responsible for updating the HCPCS code set.
  • E: The National Provider Identifier (NPI) will be assigned to health plans.

Question 10
The Data Backup Plan is part of which Security Standard?

  • A: Contingency Plan
  • B: Evaluation
  • C: Security Management Procedures
  • D: Facility Access Control
  • E: Security Incident Procedures



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