Download Public Cloud Security 6-4.VCEplus.NSE7_PBC-6.4.2022-01-06.1e.30q.vcex


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Exam NSE 7 - Public Cloud Security 6.4
Number NSE7_PBC-6.4
File Name Public Cloud Security 6-4.VCEplus.NSE7_PBC-6.4.2022-01-06.1e.30q.vcex
Size 1.77 Mb
Posted January 06, 2022
Downloads 10



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Demo Questions

Question 1
When configuring the FortiCASB policy, which three configuration options are available? (Choose three.)

  • A: Intrusion prevention policies
  • B: Threat protection policies
  • C: Data loss prevention policies
  • D: Compliance policies
  • E: Antivirus policies



Question 2
You have been tasked with deploying FortiGate VMs in a highly available topology on the Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud. The requirements for your deployment are as follows: 
You must deploy two FortiGate VMs in a single virtual private cloud (VPC), with an external elastic load balancer which will distribute ingress traffic from the internet to both FortiGate VMs in an active-active topology.  
Each FortiGate VM must have two elastic network interfaces: one will connect to a public subnet and other will connect to a private subnet. 
To maintain high availability, you must deploy the FortiGate VMs in two different availability zones.  
How many public and private subnets will you need to configure within the VPC?

  • A: One public subnet and two private subnets  
  • B: Two public subnets and one private subnet
  • C: Two public subnets and two private subnets
  • D: One public subnet and one private subnet



Question 3
You are deploying Amazon Web Services (AWS) GuardDuty to monitor malicious or unauthorized behaviors related to AWS resources. You will also use the Fortinet aws-lambda-guardduty script to translate feeds from AWS GuardDuty findings into a list of malicious IP addresses. FortiGate can then consume this list as an external threat feed.  
Which Amazon AWS services must you subscribe to in order to use this feature?

  • A: GuardDuty, CloudWatch, S3, Inspector, WAF, and Shield.
  • B: GuardDuty, CloudWatch, S3, and DynamoDB.
  • C: Inspector, Shield, GuardDuty, S3, and DynamoDB.
  • D: WAF, Shield, GuardDuty, S3, and DynamoDB.



Question 4
  
Refer to the exhibit. A customer has deployed an environment in Amazon Web Services (AWS) and is now trying to send outbound traffic from the Web servers to the Internet. The FortiGate policies are configured to allow all outbound traffic;  
however, the traffic is not reaching the FortiGate internal interface.  
What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)

  • A: The web servers are not configured with the default gateway.
  • B: The Internet gateway (IGW) is not added to VPC (virtual private cloud).
  • C: AWS source and destination checks are enabled on the FortiGate interfaces.
  • D: AWS security groups may be blocking the traffic.



Question 5
  
   
Refer to the exhibit. Your senior administrator successfully configured a FortiGate fabric connector with the Azure resource manager, and created a dynamic address object on the FortiGate VM to connect with a windows server in Microsoft  
Azure. However, there is now an error on the dynamic address object, and you must resolve the issue.  
How do you resolve this issue?

  • A: Run diagnose debug application azd -l on FortiGate.
  • B: In the Microsoft Azure portal, set the correct tag values for the windows server.  
  • C: In the Microsoft Azure portal, access the windows server, obtain the private IP address, and assign the IP address under the FortiGate-VM AzureLab address object.
  • D: Delete the address object and recreate a new address object with the type set to FQDN.



Question 6
  
Refer to the exhibit. You are deploying a FortiGate-VM in Microsoft Azure using the PAYG/On-demand licensing model. After you configure the FortiGate-VM, the validation process fails, displaying the error shown in the exhibit.  
What caused the validation process to fail?

  • A: You selected the incorrect resource group.
  • B: You selected the Bring Your Own License (BYOL) licensing mode.
  • C: You selected the PAYG/On-demand licensing model, but did not select correct virtual machine size.
  • D: You selected the PAYG/On-demand licensing model, but did not associate a valid Azure subscription.



Question 7
An Amazon Web Services (AWS) auto-scale FortiGate cluster has just experienced a scale-down event, terminating a FortiGate in availability zone C.  
This has now black-holed the private subnet in this availability zone.  
What action will the worker node automatically perform to restore access to the black-holed subnet?

  • A: The worker node applies a route table from a non-black-holed subnet to the black-holed subnet.
  • B: The worker node moves the virtual IP of the terminated FortiGate to a running FortiGate on the worker node's private subnet interface.
  • C: The worker node modifies the route table applied to the black-holed subnet changing its default route to point to a running FortiGate on the worker node's private subnet interface. 
  • D: The worker node migrates the subnet to a different availability zone.



Question 8
Which two statements about the Amazon Cloud Services (AWS) network access control lists (ACLs) are true? (Choose two.)

  • A: Network ACLs are stateless, and inbound and outbound rules are used for traffic filtering.
  • B: Network ACLs are stateful, and inbound and outbound rules are used for traffic filtering.
  • C: Network ACLs must be manually applied to virtual network interfaces.
  • D: Network ACLs support allow rules and deny rules.



Question 9
When an organization deploys a FortiGate-VM in a high availability (HA) (active/active) architecture in Microsoft Azure, they need to determine the default timeout values of the load balancer probes.  
In the event of failure, how long will Azure take to mark a FortiGate-VM as unhealthy, considering the default timeout values?  

  • A: Less than 10 seconds
  • B: 30 secondsC. 20 seconds
  • C: 16 seconds



Question 10
Which three properties are configurable Microsoft Azure network security group rule settings?(Choose three.)

  • A: Action
  • B: Sequence number
  • C: Source and destination IP ranges
  • D: Destination port ranges
  • E: Source port ranges








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