Download CompTIA Security plus.SY0-701.VCEplus.2024-02-05.37q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-701
Exam Name: CompTIA Security plus
Date: Feb 05, 2024
File Size: 315 KB
Downloads: 15

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Question 1
A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis. Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up?
  1. Corrective
  2. Preventive
  3. Detective
  4. Deterrent
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents. An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3, page 14.
A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents. An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3, page 14.
Question 2
An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary requirement and RTO and RPO values around two days. Which of the following types of sites is the best for this scenario?
  1. Real-time recovery
  2. Hot
  3. Cold
  4. Warm
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
A cold site is a type of backup data center that has the necessary infrastructure to support IT operations, but does not have any pre-configured hardware or software. A cold site is the cheapest option among the backup data center types, but it also has the longest recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) values. A cold site is suitable for scenarios where the cost-benefit is the primary requirement and the RTO and RPO values are not very stringent. A cold site can take up to two days or more to restore the normal operations after a disaster.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387;Backup Types -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.5, video at 4:50.
A cold site is a type of backup data center that has the necessary infrastructure to support IT operations, but does not have any pre-configured hardware or software. A cold site is the cheapest option among the backup data center types, but it also has the longest recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) values. A cold site is suitable for scenarios where the cost-benefit is the primary requirement and the RTO and RPO values are not very stringent. A cold site can take up to two days or more to restore the normal operations after a disaster.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387;Backup Types -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.5, video at 4:50.
Question 3
A company requires hard drives to be securely wiped before sending decommissioned systems to recycling. Which of the following best describes this policy?
  1. Enumeration
  2. Sanitization
  3. Destruction
  4. Inventory
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices.Reference=Secure Data Destruction -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.
Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices.Reference=Secure Data Destruction -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.
Question 4
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?
  1. Private
  2. Critical
  3. Sensitive
  4. Public
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.Critical data is data that is essential for the organization's operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization's operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
Question 5
A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first?
  1. Local data protection regulations
  2. Risks from hackers residing in other countries
  3. Impacts to existing contractual obligations
  4. Time zone differences in log correlation
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:
Question 6
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?
  1. Risk tolerance
  2. Risk transfer
  3. Risk register
  4. Risk analysis
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security.CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33.CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security.CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33.CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.
Question 7
Which of the following would be the best way to block unknown programs from executing?
  1. Access control list
  2. Application allow list.
  3. Host-based firewall
  4. DLP solution
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified.An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object.An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system.A host-based firewall can block or allow network connections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1.DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data.A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1.Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified.An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.
The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:
Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object.An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.
Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system.A host-based firewall can block or allow network connections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1.
DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data.A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1.
Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
Question 8
A company hired a consultant to perform an offensive security assessment covering penetration testing and social engineering.
Which of the following teams will conduct this assessment activity?
  1. White
  2. Purple
  3. Blue
  4. Red
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18.CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4.Security Teams -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8
A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18.
CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4.Security Teams -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8
Question 9
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
  1. Serverless framework
  2. Type 1 hvpervisor
  3. SD-WAN
  4. SDN
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].
A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.
A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.
Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].
Question 10
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal. Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
  1. Tuning
  2. Aggregating
  3. Quarantining
  4. Archiving
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.Reference=Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.
Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.Reference=Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.
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