Download CompTIA Security plus.SY0-701.DumpsMate.2024-08-26.222q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-701
Exam Name: CompTIA Security plus
Date: Aug 26, 2024
File Size: 5 MB
Downloads: 4

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Question 1
Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two).
  1.  Fencing
  2.  Video surveillance
  3.  Badge access
  4.  Access control vestibule
  5.  Sign-in sheet
  6.  Sensor
Correct answer: CD
Explanation:
Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, pages 197-1981
Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, pages 197-1981
Question 2
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
  1.  SOW
  2.  SLA
  3.  MOA
  4.  MOU
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities   between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.References:Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.”
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities   between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
References:
  • Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
  • CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.”
Question 3
A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider considerfirst?
  1.  Local data protection regulations
  2.  Risks from hackers residing in other countries
  3.  Impacts to existing contractual obligations
  4.  Time zone differences in log correlation
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage.Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14.
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage.
Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14.
Question 4
A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider's hosted security services. Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client?
  1.  MOA
  2.  SOW
  3.  MOU
  4.  SLA
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and amemorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and amemorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
Question 5
A small business uses kiosks on the sales floor to display product information for customers. A security team discovers the kiosks use end-of-life operating systems. Which of the following is the security team most likely to document as a security implication of the current architecture?
  1.  Patch availability
  2.  Product software compatibility
  3.  Ease of recovery
  4.  Cost of replacement
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1
End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1
Question 6
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
  1.  Integrity
  2.  Availability
  3.  Confidentiality
  4.  Non-repudiation
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure.The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption.Availabilityis the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure.
The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. 
Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption.
Availabilityis the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
Question 7
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup data. Which of the following should the company consider?
  1.  Geographic dispersion
  2.  Platform diversity
  3.  Hot site
  4.  Load balancing
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity
Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. 
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity
Question 8
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
  1.  Hacktivist
  2.  Whistleblower
  3.  Organized crime
  4.  Unskilled attacker
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
Question 9
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan and looking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which of the following is the best type of site for this company?
  1.  Cold
  2.  Tertiary
  3.  Warm
  4.  Hot
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime.Hot site:Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster. Cold site:A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational.Tertiary site:Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness.Warm site:Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.
For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime.
  • Hot site:Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster. 
  • Cold site:A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational.
  • Tertiary site:Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness.
  • Warm site:Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.
Question 10
Malware spread across a company's network after an employee visited a compromised industry blog. Which of the following best describes this type of attack?
  1.  Impersonation
  2.  Disinformation
  3.  Watering-hole
  4.  Smishing
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense …
A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1
In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.
References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense …
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