SK0-005: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam - Free download from Exam Files

After the installation of an additional network card into a server, the server will not boot into the OS. A technician tests the network card in a different server with a different OS and verifies the card functions correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?

Remove the original network card and attempt to boot using only the new network card.
Check that the BIOS is configured to recognize the second network card.
Ensure the server has enough RAM to run a second network card.
Verify the network card is on the HCL for the OS.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The HCL stands for Hardware Compatibility List and it is a list of hardware devices that are tested and certified to work with a specific operating system. If a network card is not on the HCL for the OS, it may not function properly or cause compatibility issues. Therefore, verifying the network card is on the HCL for the OS should be the next step to troubleshoot this issue. Reference:https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-examobjectives (Objective 4.1)

The HCL stands for Hardware Compatibility List and it is a list of hardware devices that are tested and certified to work with a specific operating system. If a network card is not on the HCL for the OS, it may not function properly or cause compatibility issues. Therefore, verifying the network card is on the HCL for the OS should be the next step to troubleshoot this issue.

Reference:

https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-examobjectives (Objective 4.1)

An administrator is troubleshooting performance issues on a server that was recently upgraded. The administrator met with users/stakeholders and documented recent changes in an effort to determine whether the server is better or worse since the changes. Which of the following would BEST help answer the server performance question9

Server performance thresholds
A server baseline
A hardware compatibility list
An application service-level agreement

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

A server baseline is a set of metrics that represents the normal performance and behavior of a server under a specific workload and configuration. A server baseline can help answer the server performance question by comparing the current performance with the previous performance before the upgrade. This can help identify any changes or issues that may have affected the server performance. Reference:https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptiaserver- sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.2)

A server baseline is a set of metrics that represents the normal performance and behavior of a server under a specific workload and configuration. A server baseline can help answer the server performance question by comparing the current performance with the previous performance before the upgrade. This can help identify any changes or issues that may have affected the server performance.

Reference:

https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptiaserver- sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.2)

An application needs 10GB of RAID 1 for log files, 20GB of RAID 5 for data files, and 20GB of RAID 5 for the operating system. All disks will be 10GB in capacity. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of disks needed for this application?

6
7
8
9

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

To calculate the minimum number of disks needed for this application, we need to consider the RAID levels and their disk requirements. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks and provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both disks. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks and provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. To create a 10GB RAID 1 array for log files, we need two 10GB disks. To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for data files, we need four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for the operating system, we need another four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). Therefore, the total number of disks needed is 2 + 4 + 4 = 10. However, since we can use different RAID levels for different partitions on the same disk, we can optimize the disk usage by using only eight disks as follows: Disk 1: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 2:10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 3: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 4: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 5: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 6: 10GB RAID 5 (OS) + unused space Disk 7: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for OS) + unused space Disk 8: unused space Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels

To calculate the minimum number of disks needed for this application, we need to consider the RAID levels and their disk requirements. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks and provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both disks. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks and provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. To create a 10GB RAID 1 array for log files, we need two 10GB disks. To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for data files, we need four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for the operating system, we need another four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). Therefore, the total number of disks needed is 2 + 4 + 4 = 10. However, since we can use different RAID levels for different partitions on the same disk, we can optimize the disk usage by using only eight disks as follows: Disk 1: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 2:

10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 3: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 4: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 5: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 6: 10GB RAID 5 (OS) + unused space Disk 7: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for OS) + unused space Disk 8: unused space Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels

The management team has mandated the use of data-at-rest encryption for all data. Which of the following forms of encryption best achieves this goal?

rive
Database
Folder
File

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

Drive encryption is a form of data-at-rest encryption that encrypts the entire hard drive or solid state drive. This means that all the data on the drive, including the operating system, applications, and files, are protected from unauthorized access. Drive encryption is usually implemented at the hardware or firmware level, and requires a password, PIN, or biometric authentication to unlock the drive. Drive encryption is the most comprehensive and secure way to achieve data-at-rest encryption, as it prevents anyone from accessing the data without the proper credentials, even if they physically remove the drive from the server. References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 9: Security, page 367.

Drive encryption is a form of data-at-rest encryption that encrypts the entire hard drive or solid state drive. This means that all the data on the drive, including the operating system, applications, and files, are protected from unauthorized access. Drive encryption is usually implemented at the hardware or firmware level, and requires a password, PIN, or biometric authentication to unlock the drive. Drive encryption is the most comprehensive and secure way to achieve data-at-rest encryption, as it prevents anyone from accessing the data without the proper credentials, even if they physically remove the drive from the server.

References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 9: Security, page 367.

A company recently implemented VolP across a multicampus environment with ten locations. The company uses many network technologies, including fiber, copper, and wireless. Users calling between three of the locations have reported that voices sound strange. Which of the following should be monitored to narrow down the issue?

Disk IOPS
CPU utilization
RAM utilization
Network latency

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

Network latency is the measure of delay in data transmission over a network. It can affect the quality of voice over IP (VoIP) calls by causing echo, jitter, or distortion. Network latency can be caused by various factors such as network congestion, distance, routing, or bandwidth. To monitor network latency, you can use tools such as ping, traceroute, or network analyzers.References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 237.

Network latency is the measure of delay in data transmission over a network. It can affect the quality of voice over IP (VoIP) calls by causing echo, jitter, or distortion. Network latency can be caused by various factors such as network congestion, distance, routing, or bandwidth. To monitor network latency, you can use tools such as ping, traceroute, or network analyzers.

References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 237.

Which of the following distributes a load across all interfaces?

Link aggregation group
Most recently used algorithm
Active-passive configuration
Failover

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

A link aggregation group (LAG) is a technique that combines multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This allows for the distribution of traffic across all the interfaces in the group, increasing bandwidth and redundancy. A LAG can use different modes to balance the load, such as address hashing, dynamic, or most recently used algorithm.References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 239.

A link aggregation group (LAG) is a technique that combines multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This allows for the distribution of traffic across all the interfaces in the group, increasing bandwidth and redundancy. A LAG can use different modes to balance the load, such as address hashing, dynamic, or most recently used algorithm.

References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 239.

Hackers recently targeted a company with an attack that resulted in a system breach, which compromised the organization's data. Because of the system breach, the administrator had to bypass normal change management procedures. Which of the following change management activities was necessary?

Cancelled change request
Change request postponement
Emergency change request
Privilege change request
User permission change request

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage.An emergency change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed. References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.

An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage.

An emergency change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed.

References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.

An administrator is tasked with building an environment consisting of four servers that can each serve the same website. Which of the following concepts is described?

Load balancing
Direct access
Overprovisioning
Network teaming

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.

Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.

References:CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.

A company has a data center that is located at its headquarters, and it has a warm site that is located 20mi (32km) away, which serves as a DR location. Which of the following should the company design and implement to ensure its DR site is adequate?

Set up the warm site as a DR cold site.
Set up a DR site that is in the cloud and in the same region.
Set up the warm site as a DR hot site.
Set up a DR site that is geographically located in another region.

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

A DR site is a backup site that can be used to restore business operations in case of a disaster that affects the primary site. A warm site is a DR site that has some equipment and data ready to be activated quickly, but not as fast as a hot site that has fully operational systems and data. A cold site is a DR site that has only basic infrastructure and no equipment or data. The location of a DR site is an important factor to consider when designing and implementing a DR plan. A DR site that is too close to the primary site may be affected by the same disaster, such as a power outage, a flood, or an earthquake. A DR site that is too far away from the primary site may incur higher costs and latency issues. Therefore, a good practice is to set up a DR site that is geographically located in another region that has different risk factors and environmental conditions than the primary site. This can help ensure that the DR site is available and accessible when needed. Reference:https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-examobjectives (Objective 3.3)

A DR site is a backup site that can be used to restore business operations in case of a disaster that affects the primary site. A warm site is a DR site that has some equipment and data ready to be activated quickly, but not as fast as a hot site that has fully operational systems and data. A cold site is a DR site that has only basic infrastructure and no equipment or data. The location of a DR site is an important factor to consider when designing and implementing a DR plan. A DR site that is too close to the primary site may be affected by the same disaster, such as a power outage, a flood, or an earthquake. A DR site that is too far away from the primary site may incur higher costs and latency issues. Therefore, a good practice is to set up a DR site that is geographically located in another region that has different risk factors and environmental conditions than the primary site. This can help ensure that the DR site is available and accessible when needed. Reference:

https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-examobjectives (Objective 3.3)

A server administrator is setting up a new payroll application. Compliance regulations require that all financial systems logs be stored in a central location. Which of the following should the administrator configure to ensure this requirement is met?

Alerting
Retention
Shipping
Rotation

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Shipping is a process of sending logs from one system to another system for centralized storage and analysis. Shipping can help ensure compliance with regulations that require financial systems logs to be stored in a central location. Shipping can also help improve security, performance, and scalability of log management. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/examobjectives/ comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.4)