Download CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam.SK0-005.VCEplus.2024-08-26.113q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SK0-005
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
Date: Aug 26, 2024
File Size: 391 KB
Downloads: 1

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Question 1
A server technician is deploying a server with eight hard drives. The server specifications call for a RAID configuration that can handle up to two drive failures but also allow for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician configure for this drive array?
  1. RAID 0
  2. RAID 5
  3. RAID 6
  4. RAID 10
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure.RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.Reference:https://www.booleanworld.com/raid-levels-explained/
The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure.
RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.
Reference:
https://www.booleanworld.com/raid-levels-explained/
Question 2
Which of the following should an administrator use to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation?
  1. Telnet
  2. Robocopy
  3. XCOPY
  4. SCP
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
The administrator should use SCP to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows secure file transfer between two devices using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption. SCP can transfer files between different operating systems, such as Linux and Windows, as long as both devices have an SSH client installed. SCP can also preserve file attributes, such as permissions and timestamps, during the transfer.
The administrator should use SCP to transfer log files from a Linux server to a Windows workstation. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows secure file transfer between two devices using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption. SCP can transfer files between different operating systems, such as Linux and Windows, as long as both devices have an SSH client installed. SCP can also preserve file attributes, such as permissions and timestamps, during the transfer.
Question 3
Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?
  1. Connect the server to a KVM
  2. Use cable management
  3. Connect the server to a redundant network
  4. Connect the server to a UPS
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
The administrator should connect the server to a UPS to prevent this situation in the future. A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device that provides backup power to a server or other device in case of a power outage or surge. A UPS typically consists of one or more batteries and an inverter that converts the battery power into AC power that the server can use. A UPS can also protect the server from power fluctuations that can damage its components or cause data corruption. By connecting the server to a UPS, the administrator can ensure that the server will continue to run or shut down gracefully during a power failure.
The administrator should connect the server to a UPS to prevent this situation in the future. A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device that provides backup power to a server or other device in case of a power outage or surge. A UPS typically consists of one or more batteries and an inverter that converts the battery power into AC power that the server can use. A UPS can also protect the server from power fluctuations that can damage its components or cause data corruption. By connecting the server to a UPS, the administrator can ensure that the server will continue to run or shut down gracefully during a power failure.
Question 4
Which of the following would be BEST to help protect an organization against social engineering?
  1. More complex passwords
  2. Recurring training and support
  3. Single sign-on
  4. An updated code of conduct to enforce social media
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.
The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.
Question 5
A technician is connecting a server’s secondary NIC to a separate network. The technician connects the cable to the switch but then does not see any link lights on the NIC. The technician confirms there is nothing wrong on the network or with the physical connection. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
  1. Restart the server
  2. Configure the network on the server
  3. Enable the port on the server
  4. Check the DHCP configuration
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.
The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.
Question 6
A server administrator is installing an OS on a new server. Company policy states no one is to log in directly to the server. Which of the following Installation methods is BEST suited to meet the company policy?
  1. GUI
  2. Core
  3. Virtualized
  4. Clone
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
A core installation is a type of installation method that is best suited to meet the company policy that states no one is to log in directly to the server. A core installation is a minimal installation option that is available when deploying some editions of Windows Server. A core installation includes most but not all server roles and features, but does not include a graphical user interface (GUI). A core installation can only be managed remotely using command-line tools such as PowerShell or Windows Admin Center, or using graphical tools such as Server Manager or Remote Desktop from another computer. This reduces the attack surface, resource consumption, and maintenance requirements of the server. A GUI installation is a type of installation method that includes a graphical user interface (GUI) and allows local or remote management using graphical tools or command-line tools. A virtualized installation is a type of installation method that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A clone installation is a type of installation method that involves creating an exact copy of an existing server’s configuration and data on another server using tools such as Sysprep or Clonezilla. Reference:  https://www.howtogeek.com/67469/thebeginners-guide-to-shell-scriptingthe- basics/  https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-driveremovable-devices-and-individual-files/  https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgradeyour-existinghard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
A core installation is a type of installation method that is best suited to meet the company policy that states no one is to log in directly to the server. A core installation is a minimal installation option that is available when deploying some editions of Windows Server. A core installation includes most but not all server roles and features, but does not include a graphical user interface (GUI). A core installation can only be managed remotely using command-line tools such as PowerShell or Windows Admin Center, or using graphical tools such as Server Manager or Remote Desktop from another computer. This reduces the attack surface, resource consumption, and maintenance requirements of the server. A GUI installation is a type of installation method that includes a graphical user interface (GUI) and allows local or remote management using graphical tools or command-line tools. A virtualized installation is a type of installation method that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A clone installation is a type of installation method that involves creating an exact copy of an existing server’s configuration and data on another server using tools such as Sysprep or Clonezilla. 
Reference: 
https://www.howtogeek.com/67469/thebeginners-guide-to-shell-scriptingthe- basics/ 
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-driveremovable-devices-and-individual-files/ 
https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgradeyour-existinghard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
Question 7
A technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Which of the following BEST represents how the technician should proceed with troubleshooting?
  1. Determine whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems.
  2. Perform a root cause analysis.
  3. Make one change at a time and test.
  4. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process.
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
This is the best way to proceed with troubleshooting when the technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Making one change at a time and testing allows the technician to isolate the cause and effect of each solution and determine which one works best. It also helps to avoid introducing new problems or complicating existing ones by making multiple changes at once. Determining whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems is a good step to perform before identifying possible solutions, but not after. Performing a root cause analysis is a good step to perform after resolving the issue, but not during. Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process is a good practice to follow at every step of troubleshooting, but not a specific way to proceed with testing possible solutions. Reference:https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-doabout-it/  https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-itmatter/
This is the best way to proceed with troubleshooting when the technician has several possible solutions to a reported server issue. Making one change at a time and testing allows the technician to isolate the cause and effect of each solution and determine which one works best. It also helps to avoid introducing new problems or complicating existing ones by making multiple changes at once. Determining whether there is a common element in the symptoms causing multiple problems is a good step to perform before identifying possible solutions, but not after. Performing a root cause analysis is a good step to perform after resolving the issue, but not during. 
Documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes throughout the process is a good practice to follow at every step of troubleshooting, but not a specific way to proceed with testing possible solutions. 
Reference:
https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to-tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-doabout-it/ 
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-itmatter/
Question 8
Winch of the following is a type of replication in which all files are replicated, all the time?
  1. Constant
  2. Application consistent
  3. Synthetic full
  4. Full
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Constant replication is a type of replication in which all files are replicated, all the time. Replication is a process of copying data from one location to another for backup, recovery, or distribution purposes. Constant replication is also known as real-time replication or synchronous replication. It ensures that any changes made to the source data are immediately reflected on the target data without any delay or lag. Constant replication provides high availability and consistency, but it requires high bandwidth and low latency. Application consistent replication is a type of replication that ensures that the replicated data is consistent with the state of the application that uses it. It involves quiescing or pausing the application before taking a snapshot of the data and resuming the application after the snapshot is taken. Application consistent replication provides better recovery point objectives than crash consistent replication, which does not quiesce the application before taking a snapshot. Synthetic full replication is a type of replication that involves creating a new full backup by using the previous full backup and related incremental backups. It reduces the backup window and network bandwidth consumption by transferring only changed data from the source to the target. Full replication is a type of replication that involves copying all data from the source to the target regardless of whether it has changed or not. It provides a complete backup of the data, but it requires more storage space and network bandwidth than incremental or differential replication.Reference: <> https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1- and-0.0.0.0/https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive- removable-devices-and-individual-files/
Constant replication is a type of replication in which all files are replicated, all the time. Replication is a process of copying data from one location to another for backup, recovery, or distribution purposes. Constant replication is also known as real-time replication or synchronous replication. It ensures that any changes made to the source data are immediately reflected on the target data without any delay or lag. Constant replication provides high availability and consistency, but it requires high bandwidth and low latency. Application consistent replication is a type of replication that ensures that the replicated data is consistent with the state of the application that uses it. It involves quiescing or pausing the application before taking a snapshot of the data and resuming the application after the snapshot is taken. Application consistent replication provides better recovery point objectives than crash consistent replication, which does not quiesce the application before taking a snapshot. Synthetic full replication is a type of replication that involves creating a new full backup by using the previous full backup and related incremental backups. It reduces the backup window and network bandwidth consumption by transferring only changed data from the source to the target. Full replication is a type of replication that involves copying all data from the source to the target regardless of whether it has changed or not. It provides a complete backup of the data, but it requires more storage space and network bandwidth than incremental or differential replication.
Reference: <https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1- and-0.0.0.0/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive- removable-devices-and-individual-files/
Question 9
A technician is deploying a single server to monitor and record me security cameras at a remote site, which of the following architecture types should be used to minimize cost?
  1. Virtual
  2. Blade
  3. Tower
  4. Rack mount
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
A tower server is a type of server architecture that is best suited to minimize cost when deploying a single server to monitor and record the security cameras at a remote site. A tower server is a standalone server that has a similar form factor and design as a desktop computer. It does not require any special mounting equipment or rack space and can be placed on or under a desk or table. A tower server is suitable for small businesses or remote offices that need only one or few servers for basic tasks such as file sharing, print serving, or security monitoring. A tower server is usually cheaper and easier to maintain than other types of servers, but it may have lower performance, scalability, and redundancy features. A virtual server is a type of server architecture that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A virtual server can reduce hardware costs and improve flexibility and efficiency, but it requires additional software licenses and management tools. A blade server is a type of server architecture that involves inserting multiple thin servers called blades into a chassis that provides power, cooling, network, and management features. A blade server can improve performance, density, and scalability, but it requires more initial investment and specialized equipment. A rack mount server is a type of server architecture that involves mounting one or more servers into standardized frames called racks that provide power, cooling, network, and security features
A tower server is a type of server architecture that is best suited to minimize cost when deploying a single server to monitor and record the security cameras at a remote site. A tower server is a standalone server that has a similar form factor and design as a desktop computer. It does not require any special mounting equipment or rack space and can be placed on or under a desk or table. A tower server is suitable for small businesses or remote offices that need only one or few servers for basic tasks such as file sharing, print serving, or security monitoring. A tower server is usually cheaper and easier to maintain than other types of servers, but it may have lower performance, scalability, and redundancy features. A virtual server is a type of server architecture that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A virtual server can reduce hardware costs and improve flexibility and efficiency, but it requires additional software licenses and management tools. A blade server is a type of server architecture that involves inserting multiple thin servers called blades into a chassis that provides power, cooling, network, and management features. A blade server can improve performance, density, and scalability, but it requires more initial investment and specialized equipment. A rack mount server is a type of server architecture that involves mounting one or more servers into standardized frames called racks that provide power, cooling, network, and security features
Question 10
A server administrator is installing a new server that uses 40G0 network connectivity. The administrator needs to find the proper cables to connect the server to the switch. Which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
  1. SFP+
  2. GBIC
  3. SFP
  4. QSFP+
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of connector that should be used to connect a server to a switch that uses 40G network connectivity. QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver module that supports data rates up to 40 Gbps. QSFP+ modules can be used for various network protocols and media types, such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, InfiniBand, or optical fiber. QSFP+ modules have a 38-pin edge connector and can be inserted into a QSFP+ port on a switch or a server. SFP+ (Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a type of connector that supports data rates up to 10 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP+ modules have a 20-pin edge connector and can be inserted into an SFP+ port on a switch or a server. GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is an older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. GBIC modules have an SC duplex connector and can be inserted into a GBIC port on a switch or a server. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is another older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps or 4 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP modules have an LC duplex connector and can be inserted into an SFP port on a switch or a server. Reference:  https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understandingtechniques- and-fundamentals/https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-yourmacs- system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/
QSFP+ is a type of connector that should be used to connect a server to a switch that uses 40G network connectivity. QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver module that supports data rates up to 40 Gbps. QSFP+ modules can be used for various network protocols and media types, such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, InfiniBand, or optical fiber. QSFP+ modules have a 38-pin edge connector and can be inserted into a QSFP+ port on a switch or a server. SFP+ (Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a type of connector that supports data rates up to 10 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP+ modules have a 20-pin edge connector and can be inserted into an SFP+ port on a switch or a server. GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is an older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. GBIC modules have an SC duplex connector and can be inserted into a GBIC port on a switch or a server. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is another older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps or 4 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP modules have an LC duplex connector and can be inserted into an SFP port on a switch or a server. 
Reference: 
https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understandingtechniques- and-fundamentals/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-yourmacs- system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/
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